No. If the Commerce Clause were applicable then they should have invoked it years ago to allow people to buy coverage across state lines. Not allowing people in State A to buy an insurance policy originating from State B or C is a barrier to interstate commerce, thus violating the Commerce Clause. But that was of no concern before Obamacare. Only now that there was a threat to Obamacare and the government's power do they invoke the clause, which to me invalidates the entire argument they are trying to peddle.
no, government mandates of any sort are rarely justified by the Commerce clause
